The Ladybug Clock Puzzle

An interactive exploration of a deceptively simple probability puzzle.
A ladybug on a flower.

When it comes to matters of probability I always trust my intuition (to be wrong).

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QR code linking to https://navendu.me/posts/ladybug-clock-puzzle/

A ladybug lands on the 12 of a clock, and every second she moves randomly to a neighbouring number, either one step clockwise or one step counterclockwise. Each time she touches a number, we are colouring it red. What is the probability that the very last number to get coloured is the 6?

At first glance, it seemed like 66, being the farthest point from 1212, should have a special probability. It also seemed like my intuition was wrong.

The simplest solution is to run the experiment twenty thousand times and see what happens.

IMPORTANT

No ladybugs were harmed during the making of this post.

12 Current Position
0 Steps Taken
1 Numbers Visited
0 Total Runs
Ending position distribution
1
0.0%
2
0.0%
3
0.0%
4
0.0%
5
0.0%
6
0.0%
7
0.0%
8
0.0%
9
0.0%
10
0.0%
11
0.0%

Run the simulation a few times and see how she reaches the last number. It looks a bit random at first. Once you are tired of playing around, click Run 10000x to see the probability distribution emerge.

TIP

Spam the Run 10000x button.

The probability that 66 is the last number colored is converging to 9.09\sim 9.09% or 1/111/11. So is the probability for every number!

Why?

To understand that, let’s look at what must happen for any number to be the last one visited.

Think of the clock as a cycle of 1212 nodes. The ladybug starts at 1212 (position 00) and at each step moves to a neighboring number with equal probability.

For any number kk to be the last visited, the ladybug must:

  1. First reach one of its neighbors (either k1k-1 or k+1k+1)
  2. Then travel all the way around the clock to reach the other neighbor
  3. Only then, finally, step onto kk

This maps to the Gambler’s Ruin problem.

Picture a gambler who starts with xx dollars. Each round, she flips a fair coin: heads, she wins a dollar; tails, she loses one. She keeps playing until she either goes bankrupt (00 dollars) or hits her target (nn dollars).

The probability of reaching nn before 00 is:

P(reach n before 0start at x)=xn P(\text{reach } n \text{ before } 0 \mid \text{start at } x) = \frac{x}{n}

Start with 11 dollar and try to reach 1111? Your odds are 1/111/11. Not great.

Our ladybug is doing the exact same thing: moving randomly with equal probability in either direction. Let’s apply this to position 66.

Step 1: The ladybug must first reach either 55 or 77 (without visiting 66).

By symmetry (the clock is symmetric around the 1212-66 axis), there’s a 5050% chance she reaches 55 first and 5050% chance she reaches 77 first.

Step 2: Say she reaches 55 first (having visited 12,1,2,3,412, 1, 2, 3, 4 along the way). For 66 to be last, she must now go all the way around the clock (543211211109875 \to 4 \to 3 \to 2 \to 1 \to 12 \to 11 \to 10 \to 9 \to 8 \to 7), before stepping onto 66.

From position 55, she’s 11 step away from 66 and 1010 steps away from 77 (going the long way). Sound familiar? She’s our gambler, starting with 11 dollar and trying to reach 1111 before going broke. Using the formula:

P(reach 7 before 6start at 5)=111 P(\text{reach 7 before 6} \mid \text{start at 5}) = \frac{1}{11}

Step 3: Combining both cases:

P(6 is last)=P(reach 5 first)P(reach 7 before 6at 5)+P(reach 7 first)P(reach 5 before 6at 7)=12111+12111=111 \begin{aligned} P(6 \text{ is last}) &= P(\text{reach 5 first}) \cdot P(\text{reach 7 before 6} \mid \text{at 5}) \\[3ex] &\quad + P(\text{reach 7 first}) \cdot P(\text{reach 5 before 6} \mid \text{at 7}) \\[3ex] &= \frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{1}{11} + \frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{1}{11} \\[3ex] &= \boxed{\frac{1}{11}} \end{aligned}

The same argument works for every number (except 1212, of course, which is already visited at the start).

For any number kk to be last, you must reach one of its neighbors first, then go the long way around (1010 steps) before taking the short way (11 step) to kk. The “long way” is always 1010 steps, and the “short way” is always 11 step, regardless of which number you’re considering.

Once you’ve visited one neighbor of a number, you’ve necessarily visited all the other numbers on that side of the clock. The structure is the same for every position.

P(k is last)=111for all k1,2,3,,11 P(k \text{ is last}) = \frac{1}{11} \quad \text{for all } k \in {1, 2, 3, …, 11}

The positions aren’t symmetric in terms of distance from 1212 but they are symmetric in terms of the structure of the random walk reaching them last.

Thanks to the smart people on the YouTube comment section, without whom I would not have been able to piece this together.

As I was exploring solutions to this problem, I came across Austin Z. Henley’s blog post where he also made a simulation!

Webmentions • Last updated at 10:41 AM, 18th January 2026

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